What does Jesus say in John 10:34?
John 10:34 Jesus replied, "Is it not written in your Law: 'I have said you are gods'? Jesus answered them, "Is it not written in your Law, 'I have said you are "gods"'? Jesus replied, “It is written in your own Scriptures that God said to certain leaders of the people, ‘I say, you are gods!’.
What did Jesus say to certain leaders of the people?
Jesus replied, “It is written in your own Scriptures that God said to certain leaders of the people, ‘I say, you are gods!’. English Standard Version. Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’? Berean Study Bible.
What is the justification of Jesus?
Verse 34. - The justification of Jesus which follows is often supposed to be a retraction of the claim - a repudiation of the inference which the Jews drew from the words recorded in ver. 30. On the contrary, our Lord took up one illustration from among many in Holy Scripture, that the union between man and God lay at the heart of their ( νόμος) Law. True, he quoted from Psalm 82:6 with reference to the high official title given by the Holy Spirit to the false and tyrannical judges of the old covenant. Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your Law? The Psalms are here spoken of as "the Law," showing that they did form part of the revelation and law of the Divine kingdom ( John 7:49; John 12:34; John 15:25 ). Jesus does not imply that the Law was theirs and not his. There is not a shadow of disrespect cast on the Law by the pronoun, but such an identification of it with his hearers that they ought, by its aid, to have been saved from utterly misconceiving his words I said, Ye are gods ( elohim, θεοί ). To stand in close relation with the theocracy was to be covered with its glory. He seems to force upon them thus a host of similar blendings of the Divine and human in the age-long preparation for himself, and to free all these from the suspicion of blasphemy. The Hebrew thought was really calculated to prepare the world for this high intercommunion, not to abolish it. Judaism, rabbinism, had widened the chasm between God and man. Christ came to fill up the chasm; nay more, to show the Divine and human in living, indissoluble union.
What did Yeshua say to them?
Yeshua said to them, “Is it not written in your law, 'I have said, “You are gods”'?”. Contemporary English Version. Jesus replied: In your Scriptures doesn't God say, "You are gods"? Douay-Rheims Bible.
Does Jesus say the law is theirs?
Jesus does not imply that the Law was theirs and not his. There is not a shadow of disrespect cast on the Law by the pronoun, but such an identification of it with his hearers that they ought, by its aid, to have been saved from utterly misconceiving his words I said, Ye are gods ( elohim, θεοί ).
What does John 10:34-36 mean?
The first John 10:34-36shows that they ought not to object to his use of the word God, even if he were no more than a man. The second John 10:37-38repeats substantially what he had before said, left the same impression, and in proof of it he appealed to his works. John 10:34. In your law - Psalm 82:6.
What is the law of the Old Testament?
The whole Scripture of the Old Testament, being wrote by holy men, inspired of God, and directive of men’s conversation before men, and towards God, is sometimes called the law, Psalm 19:7.
What conclusion did Jesus draw?
From this, Jesus draws the conclusion a minori ad majus, that He might call Himself God’s Sonwithout blasphemy. He is surely far more exalted than they (ὃν ὁ πατὴρ ἡγίασε, etc.); and nevertheless had designated Himself, not θεός, as though wishing to make a God of Himself, but merely υἱὸς τ.
What does the law include in Psalm 82:6?
In the law which was given unto them, of which they boasted, and pretended to understand, and interpret, even in Psalm 82:6; for the law includes not only the Pentateuch, but all the books of the Old Testament: it is an observation of one of the Jewish doctors (t), that .
What does "ye are gods" mean?
I said, ye are gods? which is spoken to civil magistrates, so called, because of their authority and power; and because they do, in some sort, represent the divine majesty, in the government of nations and kingdoms. Many of the Jewish writers, by "gods", understand "the angels". The Targum paraphrases the words thus: .
How were the judges made gods?
The a fortiorielement in the argument lies in this, that the judges were made “gods” by the coming to them of God’s commission, which found them engaged otherwise and itself raised them to their new rank, whereas Jesus was set apart by the Father and sent into the world for the sole object of representing the Father.
Why was the Father in the Son?
The Father was in the Son, so that by Divine power he wrought his miracles; the Son was so in the Father, that he knew the whole of His mind. This we cannot by searching find out to perfection, but we may know and believe these declarations of Christ. Barnes' Notes on the Bible.